Matthew that "each one interpreted them as he could." The use of the
verb "interpreted" in the past tense, instead of "interprets" in the
present, he considers, clearly indicates that the time which Papias
contemplates is not the time when he writes his book. Each one
interpreted as he could when the Oracles were written, but the
necessity of which he speaks had passed away; and Dr. Lightfoot arrives
at the conclusion: "In other words, it implies the existence of a
recognised Greek translation _when Papias wrote_ ... But if a Greek
St. Matthew existed in the time of Papias we are forbidden by all
considerations of historical probability to suppose that it was any
other than our St. Matthew." [121:1] It is very probable that, at the
time when Papias wrote, there may have been several translations of the
"Oracles" and not merely one, but from this to the assertion that the
words imply a "recognised" version which was necessarily "our St.
Matthew" is a remarkable jump at conclusions. It is really not worth
while again to discuss the point. When imagination is allowed to
interpret the hidden meaning of such a statement the consequence cannot
well be predicated. This hypothesis still leaves us to account for the
substitution of a Greek Gospel for the Hebrew original of Matthew, and
Dr. Lightfoot does not assist us much. He demurs to my statement that
our first Gospel bears all the marks of an original, and cannot have
been translated from the Hebrew at all: "If he had said that it is not
a homogeneous Greek version of a homogeneous Hebrew original this would
have been nearer the truth." [122:1]

That Hebrew original is a sad stumbling-block, and it must be got rid
of at all costs. Dr. Lightfoot is full of resources. We have seen that
he has suggested that the account of Papias of the origin may not have
been correct. Regarding the translation or the Greek Gospel we do not
know exactly what Papias said. "He may have expressed himself in