thought to imprecate evil on himself for the benefit of his people!
All the expositors we have seen on this passage, conceive him to have
wished some sore calamity to himself for the advantage of his nation!
Though they have differed respecting the magnitude of the evil which
he wished to suffer for their sake.

Doct. Doddridge considers him, as "wishing to be made a curse for
them, as Christ hath been made a curse for us, that so they might be
delivered from the guilt which they had brought on themselves, and be
entitled to the blessings of the rejected gospel."

Doct. S. Clark views him, as "desirous of suffering the calamities to
which his people were doomed for rejecting and crucifying the Savior,
so that, could they all centre in one person, he wished to be the
person, that he might thereby procure salvation for them!"

Grotius and Pool understand him, as "wishing to be separated from the
church of Christ for the sake of the Jews!" Which differs little from
Doct. Hunter's sense of the passage--to which Doct. Guyse adds, "a
desire of every indignity of man, and to be cut off from communion
with Christ, for the sake of Israel;" whom he strangely considers as
prejudiced against Christianity in consequence of their prejudices
against Paul!

But why should the apostle wish evil to himself for their sakes? What
possible advantage could his sufferings have been to his nation? Is it
possible that those learned expositors should conceive that pains and
penalties inflicted on him could have made atonement for their sins,
and expiated their guilt! They must never have read Paul's epistles or
never have entered into the spirit of them, who could entertain such