To determine whether Mr. Beck is justified in finding as he does, it is
necessary, first of all, to examine the exact status of the powers at
the time the ultimatum was sent. We find that Austria had a just
grievance against Servia, for which it was seeking redress. An issue was
therefore raised between Austria and Servia. Germany, although Austria's
ally, immediately defined its attitude by declaring emphatically that
"the question at issue was one for settlement between Servia and Austria
alone."


Why Did Russia Mobilize?

I beg to ask Mr. Beck to answer the following question: By what
right--moral, legal, or equitable--did Russia make Servia's cause its
own? Did Russia have any alliance with Servia? I further ask: What
privity existed between Austria, Servia, and Russia?

Suppose Mr. Beck can justify the action of Russia, although a "rank
outsider," in taking Servia's part, how can he possibly justify the
positively unreasonable and, under the circumstances, most dangerous
step of "actual mobilization" on the part of Russia?

Mr. Beck has tried to justify the mobilization by quoting the Russian
excuse "that Russia's mobilization was only for a defense against
Austria." On close examination what does this amount to? It resolves
itself into a situation somewhat like this: A sends an ultimatum to B
seeking redress for a wrong committed by B upon A, whereupon C mobilizes
"for defense against A." I leave it to the average American of ordinary
intelligence to find a reason for C's mobilization "for defense against