Moses must have written something if he was read. What has become of his
writings? Is it not the Pentateuch which the Scriptures everywhere call
the writings of Moses? Undoubtedly, yes.

In Paul's missionary sermon at Antioch in Pisidia, he declared to his
audience that through Christ "all that believe are justified from all
things, from which ye could not be justified _by the law of Moses_"
(Acts xiii. 39).

Why does Paul refer to the ceremonial of the Jewish ritual as the law of
Moses? It must be answered that Paul was a Jew. He was familiar with the
Jewish scriptures. He had read the following passages and believed them,
and was grounded in the truth which they declare, that "by the hand of
Moses" they were given to the people.

To satisfy the reader that they were "given by the hand of Moses" the
following Scriptures are furnished:

1. "Aaron and his sons did all things which were commanded _by the hand
of Moses_." (Lev. viii. 36.)

2. "That ye may teach the children of Israel all the statutes which the
Lord hath spoken unto them _by the hand of Moses_." (Lev. x. 11.)

3. "These are the statutes and judgments and laws which the Lord made
between him and the children of Israel in Mount Sinai, _by the hand of
Moses_." (Lev. xxvi. 46.)

4. "These were they that were numbered of the families of the