milder word, "judgment." Our contention is, if the word "damnation" be
right in one passage, it is right in another. Why, for example, did they
not translate John ix. 39, so as to represent our Lord as saying--"For
damnation ([Greek: krimas]) I came into this world?" They gave the true
rendering in this and other passages, because it would have been too
absurd not to do so.

That these criticisms are not unjustified is seen in the fact that the
New Testament revisers have discarded the word "damnation" in the above
passages, and in Rom. xiii. 2 and I Cor. xi. 29, have correctly rendered
[Greek: krima] as "judgment."

We are thankful to them for this service in the interests of truth.

We must briefly consider--

(c) The word (krisis).

It also denotes judgment, i.e., the process of judging; and in forty-one
passages of the New Testament the translators so rendered it. But in
Matt, xxiii. 33; Mark in. 29; and John v. 29, they deliberately
substituted the word "damnation" for "judgment." With what object?
Plainly, to add emphasis to their preconceived idea of an endless hell.
But does this commend itself as being a fair and consistent way of
dealing with Scripture?

Why,--except that it was too utterly foolish,--not have rendered the
following passages as they did the three just instanced?

"Woe unto you, Scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye ... pass over